Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why do women need to wear bras, in spite of the fact that the breasts are an integral part of the body?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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